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TERMS not WORDS.
This article will go into the IRS use of meanings in their code. In fact any
agency of government or the legislature of a state, or Congress that uses the
word TERM in it's statutes is totally different when TERM is not used. WORD
and TERM are entirely two separate and distinct conveyances of ideas. If TERM
is used in a definition that signifies a special meaning to the words that follow
the word TERM. For it is the man's idea, who is the proponent of the idea, as
to just what meaning that term has in his mind. It can be totally different
than what you are used to when using that word. It is really not that hard to
grasp the differences. You will see as we move along. First is to set the foundation
in understandable use for this discussion.
The following from Blk's Law 4th Ed.
TERM . A word or phrase; an expression; particularly one which possesses
a fixed or known meaning in some science, art, or profession.
WORDS. Symbols indicating idea and subject to contraction and expansion
to meet the idea sought to be expressed. * * * As used in law, this term generally
signifies the technical terms and phrases appropriate to particular instruments,
or aptly fitted to the expression of a particular intention in legal instruments.
See the subtitles following.
WORDS OF ART. The vocabulary or terminology of a particular art or science,
and especially those expressions which are idiomatic or peculiar to it. See
Cargill v Thompson, 57, Minn. 534, 59 N.W. 638
The following from Webster's American Dictionary of the English Language
1828. Term consists of two columns so only the pertinent parts are cited.
However, read the entire definition in that book so you cannot say I am picking
and choosing. However, that's exactly what the enemy (the government) does.
TERM. 1. A limit; a bound or boundary; the extremity of anything; that
which limits it extent.
7. In grammar , a word or expression; that which fixes or determines
ideas.
14. In contracts, terms in the plural, are conditions; propositions
stated or promises made, which when assented to or accepted by another, settle
the contract and bind the parties.
WORD. 1. An articulate or vocal sound or a combination of articulate
or vocal sounds , uttered by the human voice, and by custom expressing an idea
or ideas ; a single component of human speech or language.
Notice that "term" is defined in
both dictionaries quite similarly. Term pinpoints the idea exactly and must
be specific and can not be expanded or contracted upon. However, "word"
is quite differently defined in the standard dictionary of common words we all
use. When we converse on the street, in the home, in the store we use common
words which are not terms. Term is limiting to a specific idea. Words only can
be expanded or contracted upon whereas terms cannot.. Now refer to Black's above
and note that they used "TERM" and not "word" in the definition
of WORD. Most people would never catch it unless shown. This is how closely
you have to read the past masters of deceit who are lawyers.
What is white to you is black to them in the words employed in their "Words
of Art." This is never more evident than in the definitions in the IR Code.
Please note that every definition (7701) starts with "The TERM---". Once you
understand TERM is a clue to words of art employed after the word term, you
have half the battle won. That means throw out the standard dictionary definition
we are all use to seeing and go by what they, the writers of the law, mean.
They never say "The WORD" when they start the definition in any 7701 (a) part,
now do they? Or for that matter anywhere else in the code definitions. It has
to be term in order to make words work against you and for them,
as they write the definitions, not us.
I suggest everyone take a look at IRC 7701(a)(28) OTHER TERMS. -- Any
term used in this subtitle with respect to the application of, or in connection
with, the provisions of any other subtitle of this title shall have the same
meaning as in such provisions.
The case of the TERM, not word, "Resident" it is legally defined in United
States v. Penelope, 27 Fed. Case No. 16024, which states:
"But admitting that the common acceptance of the word and its legal
technical meaning are different, we must presume that Congress
meant to adopt the latter.", page 487.
"But this is a highly penal act, and must have strict construction.
* * * The question seems to be whether they inserted 'resident' without
the legal meaning generally affixed to it. If they have omitted to express
their meaning, we cannot supply it.", page 489.
No
one asks what words are in the code because we blindly use the common accepted
use of that word that we all use in every day speech. This gives the IRS an
edge because the idea written is specifically technical as stated by the court
in the case above. So IRS moves by presumption, against the man by calling him
a "person" that is defined in the code at section 7343, but the man assumes
he is a person in common words and not terms of the law writer. Now this is
where the use of the word "including" by IRS, means restricted to
that specific meaning and cannot be expanded upon. The use of the word TERM
quite clearly states it is not a "WORD" that can be expanded or contracted
upon when reading the definition in the above dictionaries. Therefore, including
cannot be expanded upon to mean any more than what is described by the 'TERM."
If it could be expanded the definition would look like this, Person.
Person shall be construed to mean and include * * *. Or
it could look like this Person. The word
person shall be construed to mean and include * * * In either
case the word can be expanded or contracted while the use of TERM cannot.
"Person" is a TERM and is a word of art and does not pertain to Man. Man is
never referenced in any tax code; only "person" who is a Man that has taken
on the artificial character of a legal entity subject to the tax. That Man is
an artificial person and to define him as such they use the term of art "natural
person" to separate him from a paper corporation such as IBM who could never
be a "natural person", just a "person" as defined in the 7701(a) definition.
So, now the man who is not a taxpayer, in the sense we know, actually makes
the IRS presumption stick when declaring he is a "natural person." Remember,
in law, and no where else, the word "person" means a legal entity of artificial
character. So you state you are a "natural" artificial (person) compared
to a fictional corporation (person).
One not only has to read this at http://www.atgpress.com/inform/tx021.htm
but must totally comprehend what is said here otherwise they are spinning wheels.
Remember we are dealing with past masters here of the utmost deceit we will
ever imagine.
For instance in 7701 (a) 10, State
is a TERM and not a WORD. Therefore, it is defined exactly like the words employed
and no more. State is exactly what is written, that is the District of Columbia.
It does NOT include any of the states of the Union as it cannot be expanded
upon as it is not a WORD but a "TERM" already defined as the idea
of the law writer. In 7701 (a) (9) the United States is only the district of
Columbia and only the states that the United States owns such as those described
in 26 U.S.C. 3121 (e) (1) and (2). Notice the word "TERM" in the beginning
of the definition to alert you that it is a technical specific closed meaning
to those words employed in that section. Therefore, in all the entire code,
that meaning stands unless altered specifically. Now where that might be?
Turn to 26 U.S.C. 6103 (b) (5). Note after the word TERM is used it includes
the word MEANS. No where else but one or two other places will you see the word
means used. Now they are telling you that for that section and that section
only the definition is expanded upon to include all the states in the Union
as it names them as such. You do not see this definition in 3121 (e) (1) and
(2). Because to do so, as stated in 7701 (a) it would be "manifestly incompatible
with the intent thereof."
Be not so fast to look at what the word "means"
means. Just like Clinton argued the word "is." Yes, words are used
to kill you by IRS and this government. From the 1828 American Dictionary this
is very revealing as to why they had to use "means" in 6103. I bold
the words of study.
MEAN. Pronounced ment . To mean, to intend, also to relate,
to recite or tell, also to moan, to lament; The primary sense is to
set or thrust forward, to reach, stretch or extend.
So the use of the word "means" to describe a different meaning to
the United States and State is required to make an expansion to the TERM United
States and State as found throughout the IR Code. If you will please note the
use of the word include is not to be found in 6103, whereas in all the other
definitions "include" appears. We all know that includes is argued
back and forth that it can be expansive. Well this proves includes is restrictive
when the word TERMS is employed, which in itself is a special "technical"
restrictive meaning. We all know that "includes " is defined as to
shut up, confine within and so forth. Now go and read 3121 (e) (1) and (2) and
you will see "The term "State" includes" and "The term
United States when used in a Geographical sense." Geographical is explained
in my book Which One Are You, as it is another WORD OF ART.
Now when you look at 7701 (a) (4) and (5) you can see the fraud by the use
of TERMS rather than words to define domestic and foreign. Remember, the entire
set of laws Titles 1 to 50 are designed to apply strictly to the United States
and NOT to the States in Union. It is to apply to government people and not
to the people in the States. It is to apply to "Domestic corporations"
and NOT to the "Foreign corporations" located in the States of the
Union. Can the state of Texas, Ohio, Florida or California statutes apply to
any other State or to the United States? The answer is obviously not. Can the
laws of the United States apply to one living in the foreign states just mentioned?
Obviously not when the Case of John Barron was decided and since then all the
other cases where the Supreme Court stated the Bill of Rights was never to extend
to the people in the states as it was a Bill for ONLY the United States. That
means none of the laws or Constitution FOR the United States apply to the people
of the States.
Have fun in reading the use of the words
of art following the use of the TERM in any definition in the Code or for that
matter any other Title of the United States code. You might want to see how
your state uses the word TERM in it's definition. This is one reason why the
kids of today starting in about 1974 have gone down hill so they could never
begin to understand what was employed by use of words that have an entirely
different meaning than what they think they mean in law. Always remember, there
is a common use of a word and there is a "legal technical" use of
the word as stated by the Supreme Court above. Now at the back of the U.S. Supreme
Court Rule book at Rule 47 it says,
"The term "State Court,"when used in these Rules, includes
the District of Columbia Court of Appeals and the Supreme Court of the Commonwealth
of Puerto Rico. See 28 U.S.C. Sections 1257 and 1258. References in these Rules
to the common law and Statutes of a State include the common law and statutes
of the District of Columbia and the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico." This
is a prime example of deceit because" includes" is restrictive to
the terms defined which is State Court. Had this been properly designed to mean
in the very beginning the state courts of each of the 50 states it would say
so but it does not. It would have to be written this way if the word TERM was
not used. A "State Court" when used in these
Rules means the 50 State courts of the Union and includes the District of Columbia
Court of Appeals and the Supreme Court of
the Commonwealth of Puerto Rico. The original wording is stating
that besides the U.S. Supreme Court being the State Court so are the other
two. It does not mean any of the 50 State of The Union courts.
I cannot harp on this enough but by
definition we people in the states are non resident aliens and are not subject
to the income tax unless falling under sections 871 to 877. See 26 U.S.C. Section
2 (d). No one or very few people heeded my words on this in, Which One Are
You, published over 12 years ago. People called me crazy, but I knew
the words employed and they refused to pick up a dictionary to understand. The
IRS gets you on words of common meaning when saying you are not a non resident
alien because they ask, "don't you live and work in the United States?"
to which the man says "yes," not realizing the IRS agent just stepped
outside the legal technical" definition of United States and applied it
in common language. Read 871 to 874 and 7701 (b) (1) (B) and ask
this. If I am a non resident alien and I make money or carry on a trade or business
within the United States am I subject to an income tax? The answer is yes? Why?
What United States are you referring to that you work and receive income from?
That's about all I can say; the rest is up to educating yourself in the fine
line of "Words of Art." But I will include part of a Chapter from
Which One Are You to digest.
Chapter IV
FEDERAL REGULATIONS
Lets follow
the Code of Federal Regulations trail to see where it leads. You have to remember,
Nonresident Alien is an American, not a United States citizen, not in the state
of the forum, per term. This is for self-employment income in 26 CFR, but
applies equally to an American working for a corporation not chartered by Congress.
26 CFR § 1.1402 (b)-1 (a) In general.
Except for the exclusions in paragraph (b) and (c) of this section and the exception
in paragraph (d) of this section, the term "self employment income" means
the net earnings from self employment derived by an individual during a taxable
year.
Lets see what paragraph (d)
says.
26 CFR § 1.1402 (b)-3 (d) Nonresident Alien.
"A nonresident alien individual never has self-employment
income. While a nonresident alien individual who derives income from a trade
or business carried on within the United States, Puerto Rico, the Virgin
Islands, Guam, or American Samoa .. may be subject to the applicable income
tax provisions on such income, such nonresident alien individual will not be
subject to the tax on self employment income, since any net earnings which he
may have from self employment do not constitute self-employment income. For
the purposes of the tax on self-employment income, an individual who is not
a citizen of the United States but who is a resident of the Commonwealth of
Puerto Rico, the Virgin Islands or for taxable years beginning after 1960, of
Guam or American Samoa is not considered to be a nonresident alien
individual."
Explanation; I
like "never", don't you? Just what is this term trade or business?
But remember the phrase is not, for I will get to that. Again
look at the context of the statute. They are using the term nonresident in its
geographical/citizen form.
26 CFR § 1.1402 (c) 1 Trade or Business.
"In order for an individual to have net earnings from self employment, he must
carry on a trade or business, either as an individual or as a member
of a partnership. Except for the exclusions discussed in §§ 1.1402 (c) (2) to
1.1402 (c) (7), inclusive, the term `trade or business', for the purpose
for the tax on self-employment income, shall have the same meaning as
when used in section 162."
I
am adding here, which comes from the book as to what section 162 says so you
have a better understanding since you do not have the book to refer.
Here comes the
Section 911 I have been referring to. There are people who say that, if you
are a United States citizen, you can use § 911 of 26 USC, to avoid the tax because
you are in one of the foreign 50 states, making foreign earned income which
then cannot be taxed. True you are in a foreign state, they got that right but
they still don't understand the term United States citizen. The U.S. citizen
has to be a "qualified individual" 26 USC § 911 (d) (1), who has a "tax
home" identified in 26 USC § 911 (d) (3), which is an individual listed
in 26 USC § 162 (a) (2). That individual has earned income as defined in 26
USC § 911 (d) (2) (A) & (B), and is a CONGRESSMAN. It also talks
about `State Legislators' at 26 USC § 162 (h) (1) thru (4), which, when the
term State is understood, means the District of Colombia and the 5 federal States.
Now go back and read 26 USC § 864 again.
(B)
NONRESIDENT.--- The term "nonresident" means any person other than a United
States resident.
Are you an individual
listed in 911 (d) (3)?
911 (d) DEFINITIONS AND SPECIAL RULES.--
For purposes of this section--
(3) TAX
HOME,-- The term "tax home" means, with respect to any individual, such
individual's home for purposes of section 162 (a) (2) (relating to traveling
expenses while away from home). An individual shall not be treated as having
a tax home in a foreign country for any period for which his abode is within
the United States.
So now they have
established that to be a United States resident in the United States,
you must have a tax home as relates to traveling expenses in section
162 (a) (2). So we go to § 162 (a) (2) to see if you are the taxpayer
for "internal revenue." Remember what "United States" we are talking about.
26 USC § 162. TRADE OR BUSINESS EXPENSES.
(a) In general.-- There shall be allowed as a
deduction all the ordinary expenses paid or incurred during the taxable year
in carrying on any trade or business, including--
(1) a reasonable allowance for salaries or other compensation for personal services
actually rendered;
(2) traveling expenses (including amounts expended
for meals and lodging other than amounts which are lavish or extravagant under
the circumstances) while away from home in the pursuit of a trade or business;
and
(3) rentals or other payments required to be made
as a condition to the continued use or possession, for purposes of the trade
or business, of property to which the taxpayer has not taken or is not taking
title or in which he has no equity. [that was one sentence]
For purposes of the preceding sentence, the place of residence of a MEMBER OF
CONGRESS (including any Delegate and Resident Commissioner) within the State,
congressional district, or possession which he represents in Congress shall
be considered his home for amounts expended by such Members within each taxable
year for living expenses will not be deductible for income tax purposes in excess
of $3,000.
There you
have it folks; are you a Congressman who is effectively connected with a trade
or business, getting money from the public treasury, which is a privilege
to which you are to return a portion of internal revenue? You thought
they were talking about you in the beginning, right? Now read 26 CFR § 1.1402
(c) 2 (b) Meaning of Public Office, as this relates to,
26 USC 7701 (a) 26, which defines "Trade or Business"
as "the performance of the functions of a public office."
Bear this in mind when we look at 26 USC § 911 infra.
When comparing
what is stated in the Social Security Handbook of 1982, Chapter 11 § 1101, pg.
176, it really helps you understand the private capacity of the laws that apply
only to the United States and its agents, to wit:
"A `TRADE OR BUSINESS'
for Social Security purposes means the same as when used in section 162 of
the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, relating to income taxes.
First lets see
to whom the exclusions apply at 1.1402 above. It applies to government employees
and foreign government employees. Who are these foreign government employees?
Why the foreign sister state governments of the Union employees while performing
in the United States as defined in section 3121 (e) (2) of 26 USC. Ever here
of the Public Salary Tax Act? No mention of Congress in these 1.1402 sections,
so we have to go back to section 162 where they are mentioned. Are you a member
of Congress to be taxed?
Now remember the resident of the islands, in
1.1402 (b) (3) (d) (remember is not), cannot be considered nonresident
alien because he resides within the term United States. Could you, an American
who is not a United States citizen, and not residing within D.C. or the islands
be a resident of those areas? NO, then you are a nonresident and alien to those
areas, while those residing in the islands are residents and are not alien since
they live on United States soil. Now the term nonresident takes on a geographical
meaning, doesn't it?
Why isn't a resident of the islands considered
nonresident of the U.S.? Here is a case from U.S.
tax court that should prove to you who are still skeptical because Johnson was
a resident of the Island.
87-1 USTC 9362 Johnson v Quinn,
"As stated in Revenue Ruling 73-315,
1973-2 C.B. 225, [T]he United States and Virgin Islands are separate and
distinct taxing jurisdictions although their income tax laws arise from
an identical statute applicable to each."
"In construing the Internal Revenue Code
of 1954, as in effect in the Virgin Islands, in addition to other modifications
when necessary and appropriate, it will be necessary in some sections
of the law to substitute the words `Virgin Islands' for the words
`United States' in order to give the law proper effect in those islands."
Emphasis theirs.
The court also stated;
"Petitioners, having been taxed by A
STATE OF THE UNITED STATES, contend that they are entitled to
a foreign tax credit for taxes paid to that STATE."
You can now see that
petitioners did not understand that they were in a state belonging to
that entity called the U.S., they thought they were in a foreign
country.
You already have
a taste for how colorable the "law" is in using the term nonresident. Here is
another example how colorable the tax law is. The Virgin Islands can
be called a foreign country when Congress so declares:
26 USC § 3455. Other definitions and special
rules.
(a) DEFINITIONS.
For
purposes of this subchapter
(4) FOREIGN
GOVERNMENT.
The
term "foreign government" means a foreign
government,
a political subdivision of a
foreign
government, and any wholly owned
agency
or instrumentality of any one or more
of
the foregoing.
[Only Congress could come up with this
utterly stupid definition to deceive the functional illiterate. This is like
defining a quart of milk by saying, a quart of milk is a quart of milk or part
of a quart of milk. They haven't defined milk or a quart, have they?]
Continuing,
§ 2014 at (g) states; "Possessions of United States Deemed a FOREIGN
COUNTRY.-- For purposes of the credits authorized by this section, each
possession of the United States shall be deemed to be a FOREIGN COUNTRY."
The rest of 26 CFR § 1.1402 (b) doesn't apply
unless you decide to work for a government corporation or are "effectively connected
with" a "trade or business" within the United States. If you do, then
follow 26 CFR § 1.6012 (b) -1. Read this very carefully and compare with;
26 CFR § 1.6015 (i)-1. Nonresident Alien
Individuals. (a) Exception from requirement from making a declaration. No
declaration of estimated income is required to be made under section 6015 (a)
and § 1.6015 (a)-1 by a nonresident alien individual unless-- (1)
Such individual has wages, as defined in section 3401 (a), and the regulations
thereunder, upon which tax is required to be withheld under section 3402.
See how nicely
the government slides around to the term "wages?" Only Congressmen and Government
employees have wages. Now we have to go back to wages in 26 CFR § 1.1402 (b)
(3). Now as a nonresident alien working for government you do have wages, so
follow 26 CFR § 1.1402 (c) -3 (a) & (d). This is where the 1040 NR comes
in and possibly the Form 8233 for withholding. Now wait a minute, you say you
don't work for government but a corporation chartered by a State of the Union?
Fine then go to;
26 CFR 31.3401 (a) (6) -1 (b). Remuneration
for services performed outside the United States. Remuneration paid to a
nonresident alien individual... for services performed outside the United States
is excepted from wages and hence is NOT SUBJECT TO WITHHOLDING.
This is NOT the
unless category found in 26 CFR § 1.6015 (i) -1 (1), is it? See how they
slide around to wages like for self-employed. Isn't this in agreement
with;
26 USC § 3401 (a) Wages. For purposes of
this chapter, the term "wages" means all remuneration... for services
performed by an employee for his employer, including the cash value of all remuneration...
paid in any medium other than cash; except that such term SHALL
NOT INCLUDE remuneration paid--(6) for such services performed by a nonresident
alien individual, as may be designated by regulations prescribed by the Secretary;.
The State chartered
company may refer you to 26 CFR § 31.3402 (f) (6) (1), but this is wrong for
you are not the employee described in 26 USC § 3401 (c), working for the employer
26 USC § 3401 (d), which corresponds to 26 CFR § 1.1402 (c) 3 (d) and (c) 2
(b). This indicates you are not the "person" described in 26 USC 7343, because
you are not to be treated as a resident working for the foreign (State), governments
instrumentality within the United States. Therefore, the company is not
defined as a government employer. How does the following read in your mind The
Federal Register, Tuesday, September 7, 1943 Page 12267 section 404.104 EMPLOYEE;
"... x ... The term `employee' ... SPECIFICALLY
INCLUDES officers and employees whether elected or appointed, of the
United States, a state ["Federal states" remember] Territory,
or any political subdivision thereof, or the District of Columbia, or any
agency or instrumentality of any one or more of the foregoing."
Note the use of the word "TERM"
and it is a specific restricted meaning correct?
On page 12266 Section 404.102 of the Federal Register,
Congress states:
" (g) Compensation paid to nonresident alien
individual. ...remuneration for services performed by nonresident alien
individuals does not constitute wages subject to withholding under
section 1622..."
This means you are not in a "Covered group"
which requires a Social Security Number. This is stated in Title 42 USC Chapter
7 section 418 (b) (5), as you would be performing a Proprietary function, which
is described in CFR Title 26 pages 6001 and 6002 section 29.22 (b)-1, as being
exempt from gross income, which is, "under the Constitution, not taxable
by the Federal government."
END of EXCERPT
Oh, I might add that this is why everyone has a VAL-1 SS number freeze on their
IMF because they are not performing a job that needs a Social Slave number and
the main computer recognizes this and will not post a valid number. Pat Lynch
has more info on this as he is THE expert IMF decoder in my book.
Alas, people are destroyed by words when they presume them to mean what they
think they mean only to maybe never find out they don't mean what they say in
common words.
Sincerely,
The Informer. Jan 2002

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