Wouldn't only 'U.S. citizens' be considered 'enemies' ???
Aren't members of a Religious Order freed from 'U.S. citizenship' ???
I wish this were the case, this is the hurdle I have been trying to jump, in
relating this to our fellow Americans, causing them to realize the gravity of
our situation. In the Patriot literature that has been put out for years, we
have focused on citizenship vs. non citizenship, meaning enfranchised vs. non
enfranchised, subject vs. freeman. With these terms as blinders, and the only
possible outcome of the human condition in this country, the illusion is complete.
No one has looked any further in the Patriot Community, unknowingly they continue
the preaching of the Conquering governments propaganda. Because they appear
to be on the outside of the laws of the Conquering government, they look no
further. They don't realize that if they win the issues they have been fighting
for, the Conquering government is still in place and can put down any group
that grows to large or is educated in the truth, to the detriment of their public
policy. Have you ever heard of the legal term "federal intimidation"?
Even with your knowledge, for which I commend you, for receiving knowledge via
the Holy Spirit, our condition appears to be cloudy. The reason it is so hard
to see, is because Satan is behind it, the master deceiver. Under the International
rules of Conquest, and even if these rules had never been defined and codified
by Lincoln, these maxims of Conquest have remained unchanged for thousands of
years.
If Country A attacks Country B with Military force and Conquers Country B,
all inhabitants in the borders of Country B come under the authority of Country
A, because of Military force and rule. The Conquering army of A dictates to
B its laws regardless of the status of anyone in Country B. If belligerents
in Country B refuse to obey the laws or rule of Country A, and if the civil
police under the control of Country A cannot enforce the laws of Country A,
A puts down the revolt of the belligerents of Country B, by their submission
to Military force, imprisonment or death. The difference between Country A and
B is brute force by military power and the fact country B's military no longer
exists, either by defeat or infusion into country A's Military. The reason country
A's Conquest is not seen or understood by the majority of people in country
B, is because under the Art of War, rules of Conquest and Military Occupation,
it is best that as few laws as possible are changed by Country A, so as not
to alarm the inhabitants of country B. This limits the length and duration and
cost of Conquest to country A. After a period of time through reeducation of
the inhabitants, via propaganda in the public schools, by twisting history and
social studies, and by control of the news media, Conquest is complete. The
inhabitants of Country B lose their original identity and take on the identity
of their Conqueror, Country A. If Country B becomes aware of their plight, Country
A has the option of finishing the Conquest or further distracting Country B
via economic collapse insuring Country B's loyalty. Another way to insure loyalty
is for Country A to involve Country B's inhabitants in wars, creating other
enemies more easily seen and understood, thereby shifting County B's suspicion
away from Country A's leaders and their Military Control. I hope this helps.
Hello Fred,
James Montgomery here, Semper Fi, ¾ Marines 0341 mos. 75-79. I am going to
send you some old emails I have sent to others. I try to not re invent the wheel,
because of time constraints. The Definitive Treaty of 1783 is for the most part
not different than what you have already read. Have you read "The United
States Is Still A British Colony"? If not I can send it to you, I include
all relevant Treaties and Charters. To just briefly answer your question below,
you have to read the Charters and understand them, before reading the Treaties
you mentioned. The king of England created corporations called Virginia, Carolina
and so on. These were business ventures, family businesses and un revocable
Trusts, because of the way they were written. The king's subjects were to lay
claim to any land they settled for the king of England and were to send back
to England a percentage of gold, silver and copper, not only during the kings
life time, but for all time, to go to all of his successors and heirs. The king
had/has allodial title to this land, he owned everything below and above ground.
You have to understand this before you read the Treaties. We fought a war and
supposedly won the Revolutionary War, and entered into a Treaty with the king
of England. Question. Why was the king granting us lands and defining the borders,
if we WON the war? Do those that lose wars dictate to the winners the conditions?
Now read the 1783 Treaty of Paris again and show me where the king ceded the
gold, silver and copper to the states. I say states because the Treaty did not
ceded anything to the inhabitants of the states, as a matter of fact their condition
was left up to the states, to determine their status. Here in North Carolina
we were declared to be freeman by the 1776 North Carolina Declaration of Rights,
we remained so until the 1787 Charter/Constitution was ratified by the states,
triggering in North Carolina, section 25 of the Declaration of Rights, which
negated any declaration or grant of land in opposition to the king of England's
Charters or grants. Only the land was ceded to the states, that which was above
ground, no mineral rights were ceded to the states. Why? The king could not
cede the gold, silver or copper to the states when it was placed in an un revocable
Trust, given to the heirs of the king, that continue to be born even today.
Since the states were only granted what was above ground, how could anyone after
the 1783 Treaty, claim to have allodial title to any property, to have allodial
title you must own everything above and below, own it completely, no liens.
If there is no allodial property, there are no freeman, the two are synonymous.
The Jay Treaty began the process of the king regaining his land above, the Bank
of the United States finished the process, with the purchase of much of the
Congressman and the office of the President and the judiciary. Is the money
still transferred to Britain, you bet. How? The 1040 tax form is the transference,
and is a result of a treaty with Britain. I have this information contained
in British Colony part I, and I am sure the Informer could tell you even
more on the taxation issue and its relevance to the 1783 Paris Treaty. I am
going to stop here because of the reason I stated at the beginning, I will send
you the emails I was referring to, if you have any questions don't hesitate
to ask.
James Montgomery